Asnt MT Level 1 - set 1

Magnetic Particle Testing Method (40 Questions)

1. "Magnetic particle" is a nondestructive examination method used for:

a. locating surface discontinuities

b. locating near surface discontinuities

c. both a and b

d. detecting material separation

2. Ferromagnetic material is:

a. strongly attracted by a magnet

b. capable of being magnetized

c. both a and b

d. not capable of being magnetized

3. The permeability of a material describes the:

a. ease with which it can be magnetized

b. depth of the magnetic field in the part

c. length of time required to demagnetize it

d. ability to retain the magnetic field

4. The retentivity of a material describes the:

a. ease with which it can be magnetized

b. depth of the magnetic field in the part

c. length of time required to demagnetize it

d. ability to retain the magnetic field

5. Why are magnetic particles available in different colors?

a. for color contrast with the part surface

b. to enhance the detection of indications

c. both a and b

d. different colors are used with different magnetic flux values

6. Which of the following can be magnetized?

a. iron

b. nickel

c. cobalt

d. all of the above

7. The magnetic field is strongest when the:

a. magnetizing voltage is flowing

b. magnetizing current is flowing

c. material exhibits high coercive forces

d. magnetizing current is not flowing

8. If a crack exists in a circular magnet, the attraction of magnetic particles to the crack is caused by a:

a. coercive force

b. leakage field

c. Doppler effect

d. high reluctance at the crack

9. The unit usually used to denote flux density is the:

a. gauss

b. henry

c. farad

d. ampere

10. Which statement is true when related to magnetic lines of force?

a. they never cross

b. they are most dense at the poles of a magnet

c. they seek the path of least resistance

d. all of the above

11. Magnetic flux lines which are parallel to a discontinuity produce:

a. strong indications

b. weak indications

c. no indications

d. fuzzy indications

12. A part is adaptable to magnetic particle inspection if:

a. it is attached to an electrostatic field

b. the material is ferromagnetic

c. the material is nonferrous

d. the material is an electric conductor

13. What rule describes the direction of current flow (+ to -) when lines of magnetic force surround a conductor?

a. the left hand rule

b. the right hand rule

c. the flux rule

d. the reluctance rule

14. The magnitude of the residual magnetic field in specimen is dependent on the:

a. L/D ratio (length to diameter)

b. strength of the applied magnetizing force

c. right hand rule

d. left hand rule

15. The proper number of ampere-turns for a given test specimen is determined by:

a. its length

b. the material

c. both a and b

d. its diameter

16. A circular field may be induced into a specimen by:

a. direct induction (head shot)

b. direct induction (prods)

c. central condustor

d. all of the above

17. An electrical yoke produces:

a. a longitudinal field

b. a circular field

c. alternating fields

d. a swinging field

18. A coil around the part produces:

a. a circular field

b. a longitudinal field

c. either a or b depending on the type of current applied

d. an intermittent field

19. In longitudinal magnetization, the proper term for calculating magnetizing force is:

a. amperes

b. ampere-turns

c. watts

d. ohms

20. Magnetic lines of force:

a. travel in straight lines

b. form a closed loop

c. are randomly oriented

d overlay in highly ferromagnetic materials

21. A magnetic particle build-up from a discontinuity is strongest when the discontinuity is oriented:

a. 180° to the magnetic field

b. 45° to the magnetic field

c. 90° to the magnetic field

d  90° to the current flow

22.  A specimen may be demagnetized by:

a.  heat treatment above Curie temperature

b. an AC coil

c.  reversing DC fields

d. all of the above

23. Which of the following is an advantage of magnetic particle testing over penetrant testing?

a. it can detect surface discontinuities with foreign material imbedded in them

b. it is faster on individual parts

c. it can detect near-surface discontinuities

d. all of the above

24. The amount of amperage used for magnetic particle inspection using the prod method is determined from the:

a. type of material

b. distance between the prod

c. diameter of the part

d. total length of the part

25. The flux within and surrounding a magnetized part or around a conductor carrying a current is known as:

a. saturation point

b. magnetic field

c. ferromagnetic

d. paramagnetic

26. The areas on a magnetized part from which the magnetic field is leaving or returning into the part are called:

a. salient points

b. defects

c. magnetic poles

d. nodes

27. A metal that is difficult to magnetize is said to have:

a. high permeability

b. low permeability

c. high reluctance

d. low retentivity

28. The magnetism that remains in a piece of magnetizable material after the magnetizing force has been removed is called the:

a. tramp field

b. residual field

c. damped field

d. permanent field

29. Why is it preferable to disassemble parts before magnetic particle inspection?

a. disassembly makes all surface areas visible

b. interfaces will create leakage fields which may confuse the inspection

c. it is usually easier to handle the disassembled parts

d. all of the above

30. Subsurface discontinuity indications usually appear:

a. sharp and distinct

b. sharp and wide

c. wide and fuzzy

d. high and loosely held

31. Which residual field is most difficult to demagnetize?

a. longitudinal

b. circular

c. vector

d. binodal

32. Which technique is the most sensitive?

a. continuous

b. residual

c. interrupted

d. counter-current

33. Which type of current brings out surface indications most clearly?

a. AC

b. DC

c. pulsed DC

d. DC with surge

34. Fluorescent magnetic particle indications should be inspected under:

a. fluorescent light

b. any light

c. black light

d. neon light

35. Inspecting a part by magnetizing, removing the current flow, and then applying the medium is called the:

a. continuous method

b. wet method

c. residual method

d. dry method

36. False indications are caused by magnetic particles being held to the part by which of the following means?

a. gravity

b. mechanical

c. both a and b

d. none of the above

37. Which of the following is the most effective method for the detection of extremely deep lying defects?

a. dry residual method using DC with surge

b. wet continuous method using half-wave rectified current

c. wet residual method

d. dry continuous method using half-wave rectified current with prods

38. A curve is sometimes drawn to show graphically the relation of the magnetizing force to the strength of the magnetic field produced in a certain material. This curve is known as the:

a. magnetic force curve

b. hysteresis curve

c. saturation curve

d. induction curve

39. What method provides greater sensitivity, particularly in locating subsurface discontinuities?

a. continuous

b. residual

c. circular

d. longitudinal

40. When there is absolutely no pattern or distribution of magnetic particles, the possible cause is that:

a. the material is nonmagnetic

b. the amperage setting is too low

c. no current is being applied

d. any of the above could be true

ANSWER

1.C	2.C	3.A	4.D	5.C	6.D	7.B	8.B	9.A	10.D
11.C	12.B	13.B	14.B	15.C	16.D	17.A	18.B	19.B	20.B
21.C	22.D	23.D	24.B	25.B	26.C	27.B	28.B	29.D	30.C
31.B	32.A	33.A	34.C	35.C	36.D	37.D	38.B	39.A	40.D

UT Level 1 sample question set 1

Level 1 - 40 Questions (Set 1)

Ultrasonic Testing Method (General)

1. A device that transforms electrical pulses into mechanical and vice versa utilizes:

     a. Snell's law

     b. piezoelectric principles

     c. mode conversion principles

     d. none of the above

2. Another name for Fresnel zone is:

     a. Fraunhoferzone

     b. near field

     c. far field

     d. Torrid zone

3. Attenuation is a:

     a. test display characteristic

     b. test material parameter

     c. transducer characteristic

     d. form of testing

4.  “25 million cycles per second” can also be stated as:

     a. 25 kHz

     b. 2500 kHz

     c. 25 MHz

     d. 25 nHz

5.  Moving a transducer over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred to as:

     a. scanning

     b. attenuating

     c. angulating

     d. resonating

6.  A term used in ultrasonic to express the rate at which sound wave pass trough various substances is:

     a. frequency

     b. velocity

     c. wavelength

     d. pulse length

7.  The indication on the instrument display that represents the far boundary of the material being tested is called:

     a. hash

     b. the initial pause

     c. the main bang

     d. the back surface reflection

8.  Sweep range echo amplitude display on CRT is an illustration of a typical for:

     a. A-scan presentation

     b. B-scan presentation

     c. C-scan presentation

     d. D-scan presentation

9.  Plan View mapping showing variation of thickness is an illustration of a typical:

     a. A-scan presentation

     b. B-scan presentation

     c. C-scan presentation

     d. D-scan presentation

10.Cross-section of weld display on CRT is an illustration of a typical:

a. A-scan presentation

b. B-scan presentation

c. C-scan presentation

d. D-scan presentation

11. An ultrasonic testing technique in which the transducer element is not parallel to the test surface is called:

     a. angle beam testing

     b. immersion testing

     c. contact testing

     d. through-transmission testing

12.  Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between:

     a. 1 and 25 kHz

     b. 1 and 1 000 kHz

     c. 0.2 and 25 MHz

     d. 15 and 100 MHz

13.  In an A-scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents:

     a. the amount of reflected ultrasonic sound energy

b. the distance traveled by the transducer

     c. the elapsed time or distance

     d. none of the above

14.  The process of comparing an instrument or device with a standard is called:

     a. angulation

     b. calibration

     c. attenuation

     d. correlation

15. Another name for a compressional wave is:

     a. Lamb wave

     b. shear wave

     c. longitudinal wave

     d. transverse wave

16. Another name for Rayleigh waves is:

     a. shear waves

     b. longitudinal waves

     c. transverse waves

     d. surface waves

17. A material used between the face of a transducer and the test surface to permit or improve
the transmission of ultrasonic vibrations from the transducer to the material being tested is called:

     a. a wetting agent

     b. a couplant

     c. an acoustic transmitter

     d. a lubricant

18. Ultrasonic testing of material where the transducer is in direct contact with the material being

      tested may be:

     a. straight beam testing

     b. surface wave testing

     c. angle beam testing

     d. all of the above

19.  The velocity of surface waves is approximately ___________ the velocity of shear waves in the same material

     a. two times

     b. four times

     c. 1/2

     d. 9/10

20.  Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the best resolving power?

     a. 1 MHz

     b. 5 MHz

     c.  l0MHz

     d.  25MHz

21.  In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as:

     a. the initial pulse

     b. the back reflection

     c. the skip distance

     d. the scan path

22.  When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:

     a. longitudinal wave

     b. shear wave

     c. surface wave

     d. lamb wave

23.  When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:

     a. longitudinal wave

     b. shear wave

     c. surface wave

     d. Lamb wave

24.  A piezoelectric material can:

     a. convert a longitudinal beam to a shear wave

     b. convert an mechanical energy to electrical energy

     c. create ionization in a test specimen

     d. produce sound waves in a coaxial cable

25.  The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on:

     a. the pulse length

     b. the angle of incidence

     c. the material, material thickness, and UT frequency (time between
         signals on the display)

     d. none of the above

26.  The primary purpose of reference blocks is to:

     a. aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflections

     b. obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an instrument

     c. obtain a common reproducible signal

     d. none of the above

27.  When testing by the surface wave method, patches of oil or dirt on the surface may:

     a. block the progress of all sound

     b. attenuate the sound

     c. have no effect on the test

     d. cause both an attenuation of sound and indications on the screen

28.  The piezoelectric material in the transducer:

     a. converts electrical energy into sound

     b. converts electrical energy into mechanical energy

     c. eliminates the signal-to-noise energy

     d. produces high speed electrons in metals

29.  The angle of incidence is:

     a. greater than the angle of reflection

     b. less than the angle of reflection

     c. equal to the angle of reflection

     d. not related to the angle of reflection

30.  The gradual loss of sonic energy as the ultrasonic vibrations travel through the material is referred to as:

     a. reflection

     b. refraction

     c. reproducibility

     d. attenuation

31.  When testing a plate, increasing the frequency of an ultrasonic longitudinal wave results in:

     a. an increase in its velocity

     b. a decrease in its velocity

     c. no change in its velocity

     d. a reversal in its velocity

32.  The depth of a discontinuity cannot be determined when using the:

     a. straight beam testing method

     b. through-transmission testing method

     c. angle beam testing method

     d. immersion testing method

33.  "100 000 cycles per second" can be written:

     a. 0.1 kHz

     b. 10 kHz

     c. 100 kHz

     d. 100 MHz

34.  The phenomenon whereby an ultrasonic wave changes direction when the wave crosses a boundary between materials with different velocities is called :

     a. refraction

     b. reflection

     c. penetration

     d. rarefaction

35.  In a test where the transducer is not perpendicular to the inspection surface, the angle of incidence is equal to :

     a. the angle of refraction

     b. the angle of reflection

     c. the shear wave angle

     d. half the shear wave angle

36.  Ultrasonic waves that travel along the surface of a material and whose particle motion is elliptical are called:

     a. shear waves

     b. transverse waves

     c. longitudinal wave

     d. Rayleigh waves

37.  The interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the:

     a. Fresnel zone

     b. acoustic impedance

     c. exponential field

     d. phasine zone

38.  When the incident angle is chosen to be between the first and second critical angles, the ultrasonic wave mode within the part will be a:

     a. longitudinal wave

     b. shear wave

     c. surface wave

     d. Lamb wave

39.  The formula used to calculate the angle of refraction within a material is called :

     a. Fresnel's law

     b. Fraunhofer's law

     c. Snell's law

     d. Lamb’s law

40. In a material with a given velocity, when frequency is increased, the wavelength will:

     a. not be affected

     b. increase

     c. decrease

     d. double

ANSWER TO GENERAL PAPER SET 1 (40 QUESTIONS)

1.B	2.B	3.B	4.C	5.A	6.B	7.D	8.A	9.C	10.B
11.A	12.C	13.C	14.B	15.C	16.D	17.B	18.D	19.D	20.D
21.A	22.A	23.B	24.B	25.C	26.B	27.A	28.B	29.C	30.D
31.C	32.B	33.C	34.A	35.B	36.D	37.A	38.B	39.C	40.C